Re: interference fit

[Orin Eman <orin@wolfenet.com>]

> <snip>
> Quite simply, the acceleration of the piston is at its greatest at TDC
> and BDT.  To accelerate anything, you have to supply a force.  At TDC,
> <snip>

> Is not piston acceleration zero *at* TDC and *at* BDC as the piston is at a dead stop
> at that instant in time? Perhaps de/acceleration is highest immediately before/after
> TDC/BDC?

Speed is 0, acceleration is rate of change of speed and definitely isn't 0.
The simplest example of speed being instantaneously 0 while under acceleration
is throwing something in the air.  As it comes to a halt before falling,
its speed is 0.  Acceleration is a constant 1g though.

You have to calculate the speed the piston reaches as it rises in the
bore and the acceleration required to bring it to a halt at TDC.
The frictional forces (and weight if the bore is close to vertical)
are orders of magnitude _less_ than that required to decelerate the
piston.  Therefore the force must be supplied by the rod.

I'll check the references tonight.

Orin.